wrong. Suffrage was first granted based on land ownership and...

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    wrong. Suffrage was first granted based on land ownership and universal male suffrage in australia variously introduced into different states during the last half of the 19th century.

    in New Zealand - same - nothing to do with war

    maybe you are talking about uk where men had the vote based on land ownership and wealth with additional votes based on education for example. After WWI the land requirement was removed for men but note this

    The RPA 1918 also introduced votes for some women aged 30 and over but with a property qualification. To qualify for the Parliamentary franchise a woman, as well as being at least 30, had to own or rent property of a yearly value of £5 or more, or be married to a man who qualified for the local government franchise


    so rather than quote someone on quora who clearly didn’t do their homework you might note that men fighting for Britain simply precipitated the change

    but not basing voting on whether men fought in the war as a prerequisite (conscientious objectors were not disqualified) but rather by changing tte property provisions. The extension of voting to women with property clearly indicates that it was a property based right.



 
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