I'm a little mystified and totally don't get it, you keep drawing upon passages from Heb, which are CLEARLY speaking in the context of AFTER the cross and you keep trying to effectively apply them to Jesus, for past eternity, surely you can see the error there?
" about his son, thy throne o God" Heb 1:8
Do you realize that no Greek word supports the "o"? NWT - 1:8 - But about the Son, he says: “God is your throne Interlinear - : The throne of You, the God, is to the age............
These seem to be saying, that God is his throne.
Jesus in John 17:3 unquestionably and independently of himself, defines the Father as the only true God when he was here. After the cross, exalted and glorified, he is referenced as an only Begotten God = confirming his 17:3, he was not a God before the cross. John 1:18.
So yes we can call Jesus God as he is (a) God under The God. -------------- "take his fathers name "
The word God is a title, not a name. Jesus quotes that he gave them the Father's name, I am not aware of any verses where Jesus has the same name. Heb 1:4 does not say he received the Fathers name. having become so much better than the angels, as He has by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they.
This could very well be referring to -> Father = The Word and Son = The Word of God Rev 19:13. "Of" being, meaning inheritance.
"name" Interlinear -> a name, authority, cause, character, fame, reputation.
Phil 2:9, 10 - Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, ofthingsin heaven, andthingsin earth, andthingsunder the earth; Col 1:18 - And He is the head of the body, the church, who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, so that in all things He may have the preeminence.
1. As already stated, all these position etc are after the cross. 2. Name above every name and it quotes the name Jesus, meaning no matter what the name, it is deemed more excellent and above the angels as he has preeminence. -------------- "If you go on further than the quote you used in John 17,The son says it is finished,i have revealed you to the world with the glory i had with you before the world was"
I have already well and truly covered John 17:5 (which you didn't comment on) and shown how the people referenced in 2 Tim 1:9 can rightfully ask the Father, for the EXACT same glory that Jesus asks for, and like him, they were Not there back in time. ------------ "In other words, he was God with us, immanuel"
You are following the ones that said Jesus had a demon in him, and claiming that Jesus was making out to be God, when he counted this claim by say, he said he was the Son of God = denying he was claiming to be God.
He became a begotten God after the cross, so the God with us is God dwelling in the Temple John 14:10 = Simples lol.
Forerunner -> Ex 40:34 - Then the cloud covered the tabernacle of meeting, and the glory of Yehowah filled the tabernacle. -------------- In beginning was the Word and the Word was to, toward, with The God and God was the Word. This was in beginning to, toward, with The God.
"This" = NO other Greek definition available to select from.
These two verses define or show us, that the Word and The God are one in the same and hence, after this point those two are referenced as he or him. One and the same, God and his inner logos/plan and part of that has been expressed by 1:3. But the key message is in relation to his word. Some Bibles didn't use the He or Him but "it". 1:4 In it (words) life was and that (words) was the light of men Psa 119:105. It was in the world and the world knew it not. It come to his own and his own received it not.
The words "to, toward and with" are in the Greeks order of preference, the toward is the best suited. Never the less, do yourself a favor and write down the overall definitions of each and let the overall of them do the talking and you will SEE, that there is no way that this overall says or shows, that there is another person or being, with The God.
Jesus is part of the results of the likes of 1:1b's true meaning, logos/plan and him, the future one, being the first in this plan and all things for the sake of him etc. ------------- "Godhead"
As I've said before, this word does not exist in the Bible truth -> Interlinear's, the word is deity and not Godhead. But if you insist, the likes of John 14:10 and more simple reasons, explain this.
