I think that the logic is that we should be looking at a fraction of Keytruda sales for FTO pillar. My logic is that:
1) In half the cases Keytruda alone is curing patients...so there would be no need to give them Bisantrene.
2) Some of Keytruda sales are in cases where it has proved to be ineffective.
This is still a big number and there are additional sales in other applications where Keytruda is not used and FTO inhibition might work. If someone wants to challenge my logic, i would rather be wrong.
Are we saying that Bisantrene would replace keytruda in those cases where keytruda works. Why?
Pillar 1 - FTO (new thread), page-30
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